How to evaluate $int_{-infty}^{infty}dx frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}$












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My physics textbook makes use of the result:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!










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    5












    $begingroup$


    My physics textbook makes use of the result:
    $$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
    I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      5












      5








      5


      3



      $begingroup$


      My physics textbook makes use of the result:
      $$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
      I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My physics textbook makes use of the result:
      $$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
      I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!







      integration definite-integrals






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      edited Nov 13 '18 at 7:08









      Asaf Karagila

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      302k32427758










      asked Nov 13 '18 at 2:29









      Ayumu KasuganoAyumu Kasugano

      1937




      1937






















          8 Answers
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          First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$



          Edit
          Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
            $endgroup$
            – Ayumu Kasugano
            Nov 14 '18 at 5:09










          • $begingroup$
            I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
            $endgroup$
            – Digamma
            Nov 14 '18 at 10:46










          • $begingroup$
            @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
            $endgroup$
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Nov 14 '18 at 15:24










          • $begingroup$
            Quite true. ;-)
            $endgroup$
            – Digamma
            Nov 14 '18 at 15:25



















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          Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



          Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



          So we need to find $J''(1)$



          Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$



          Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function



          Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$



          Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result






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            You have
            $$
            int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
            int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
            $$

            So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
            $$
            int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
            $$

            whose imaginary part is
            $$
            2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
            $$

            So
            $$
            3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
            -4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
            =6pi^2
            $$

            i.e.,
            begin{align}
            int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
            &=-pi^2
            +frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
            \
            &=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
            end{align}

            since
            $$
            int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
            $$






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              Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have



              $$begin{align}
              I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
              &=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
              &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
              &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
              &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
              &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
              &=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
              &=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
              &=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
              &=frac{pi^2}3
              end{align}$$






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                my first thought was trying substitution:
                $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
                $u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
                $$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
                if we now let:
                $$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
                then:
                $$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
                $v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
                $$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
                although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.



                Another approach:
                $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$






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                  The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$



                  Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:



                  Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$






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                    One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$






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                      We could even compute the antiderivative since
                      $$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
                      $$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
                      left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$
                      Expanding as series for large values of $p$
                      $$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
                      e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$
                      which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
                      $$left(
                      begin{array}{ccc}
                      p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
                      1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
                      2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
                      3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
                      4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
                      5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
                      6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
                      7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
                      8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
                      9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
                      10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
                      end{array}
                      right)$$






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                        8 Answers
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                        7












                        $begingroup$

                        First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$



                        Edit
                        Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
                          $endgroup$
                          – Ayumu Kasugano
                          Nov 14 '18 at 5:09










                        • $begingroup$
                          I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 10:46










                        • $begingroup$
                          @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
                          $endgroup$
                          – spaceisdarkgreen
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:24










                        • $begingroup$
                          Quite true. ;-)
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
















                        7












                        $begingroup$

                        First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$



                        Edit
                        Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
                          $endgroup$
                          – Ayumu Kasugano
                          Nov 14 '18 at 5:09










                        • $begingroup$
                          I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 10:46










                        • $begingroup$
                          @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
                          $endgroup$
                          – spaceisdarkgreen
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:24










                        • $begingroup$
                          Quite true. ;-)
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:25














                        7












                        7








                        7





                        $begingroup$

                        First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$



                        Edit
                        Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$



                        First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$



                        Edit
                        Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).







                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited Nov 13 '18 at 3:56

























                        answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:11









                        spaceisdarkgreenspaceisdarkgreen

                        32.6k21753




                        32.6k21753












                        • $begingroup$
                          Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
                          $endgroup$
                          – Ayumu Kasugano
                          Nov 14 '18 at 5:09










                        • $begingroup$
                          I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 10:46










                        • $begingroup$
                          @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
                          $endgroup$
                          – spaceisdarkgreen
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:24










                        • $begingroup$
                          Quite true. ;-)
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:25


















                        • $begingroup$
                          Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
                          $endgroup$
                          – Ayumu Kasugano
                          Nov 14 '18 at 5:09










                        • $begingroup$
                          I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 10:46










                        • $begingroup$
                          @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
                          $endgroup$
                          – spaceisdarkgreen
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:24










                        • $begingroup$
                          Quite true. ;-)
                          $endgroup$
                          – Digamma
                          Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
















                        $begingroup$
                        Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ayumu Kasugano
                        Nov 14 '18 at 5:09




                        $begingroup$
                        Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ayumu Kasugano
                        Nov 14 '18 at 5:09












                        $begingroup$
                        I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Digamma
                        Nov 14 '18 at 10:46




                        $begingroup$
                        I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Digamma
                        Nov 14 '18 at 10:46












                        $begingroup$
                        @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
                        $endgroup$
                        – spaceisdarkgreen
                        Nov 14 '18 at 15:24




                        $begingroup$
                        @Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
                        $endgroup$
                        – spaceisdarkgreen
                        Nov 14 '18 at 15:24












                        $begingroup$
                        Quite true. ;-)
                        $endgroup$
                        – Digamma
                        Nov 14 '18 at 15:25




                        $begingroup$
                        Quite true. ;-)
                        $endgroup$
                        – Digamma
                        Nov 14 '18 at 15:25











                        5












                        $begingroup$

                        Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                        Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                        So we need to find $J''(1)$



                        Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$



                        Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function



                        Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$



                        Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          5












                          $begingroup$

                          Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                          Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                          So we need to find $J''(1)$



                          Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$



                          Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function



                          Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$



                          Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            5












                            5








                            5





                            $begingroup$

                            Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                            Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                            So we need to find $J''(1)$



                            Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$



                            Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function



                            Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$



                            Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                            Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$



                            So we need to find $J''(1)$



                            Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$



                            Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function



                            Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$



                            Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:34









                            DigammaDigamma

                            6,1521440




                            6,1521440























                                4












                                $begingroup$

                                You have
                                $$
                                int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
                                int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
                                $$

                                So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
                                $$
                                int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
                                $$

                                whose imaginary part is
                                $$
                                2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
                                $$

                                So
                                $$
                                3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                -4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                =6pi^2
                                $$

                                i.e.,
                                begin{align}
                                int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                &=-pi^2
                                +frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                \
                                &=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
                                end{align}

                                since
                                $$
                                int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
                                $$






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  4












                                  $begingroup$

                                  You have
                                  $$
                                  int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
                                  int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
                                  $$

                                  So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
                                  $$
                                  int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
                                  $$

                                  whose imaginary part is
                                  $$
                                  2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
                                  $$

                                  So
                                  $$
                                  3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                  -4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                  =6pi^2
                                  $$

                                  i.e.,
                                  begin{align}
                                  int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                  &=-pi^2
                                  +frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                  \
                                  &=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
                                  end{align}

                                  since
                                  $$
                                  int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
                                  $$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    4












                                    4








                                    4





                                    $begingroup$

                                    You have
                                    $$
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
                                    $$

                                    So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
                                    $$
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
                                    $$

                                    whose imaginary part is
                                    $$
                                    2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
                                    $$

                                    So
                                    $$
                                    3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                    -4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                    =6pi^2
                                    $$

                                    i.e.,
                                    begin{align}
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                    &=-pi^2
                                    +frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                    \
                                    &=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
                                    end{align}

                                    since
                                    $$
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
                                    $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    You have
                                    $$
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
                                    $$

                                    So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
                                    $$
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
                                    $$

                                    whose imaginary part is
                                    $$
                                    2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
                                    $$

                                    So
                                    $$
                                    3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                    -4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
                                    =6pi^2
                                    $$

                                    i.e.,
                                    begin{align}
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                    &=-pi^2
                                    +frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
                                    \
                                    &=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
                                    end{align}

                                    since
                                    $$
                                    int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
                                    $$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:14









                                    user10354138user10354138

                                    7,3772925




                                    7,3772925























                                        2












                                        $begingroup$

                                        Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have



                                        $$begin{align}
                                        I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                        &=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                        &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                        &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                        &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                        &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                        &=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
                                        &=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
                                        &=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
                                        &=frac{pi^2}3
                                        end{align}$$






                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                        $endgroup$


















                                          2












                                          $begingroup$

                                          Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have



                                          $$begin{align}
                                          I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                          &=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                          &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                          &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                          &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                          &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                          &=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
                                          &=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
                                          &=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
                                          &=frac{pi^2}3
                                          end{align}$$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$
















                                            2












                                            2








                                            2





                                            $begingroup$

                                            Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have



                                            $$begin{align}
                                            I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                            &=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                            &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
                                            &=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
                                            &=frac{pi^2}3
                                            end{align}$$






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$



                                            Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have



                                            $$begin{align}
                                            I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                            &=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
                                            &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
                                            &=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
                                            &=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
                                            &=frac{pi^2}3
                                            end{align}$$







                                            share|cite|improve this answer












                                            share|cite|improve this answer



                                            share|cite|improve this answer










                                            answered Nov 13 '18 at 4:02









                                            Mark ViolaMark Viola

                                            131k1275171




                                            131k1275171























                                                0












                                                $begingroup$

                                                my first thought was trying substitution:
                                                $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
                                                $u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
                                                $$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                if we now let:
                                                $$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                then:
                                                $$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
                                                $v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
                                                $$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
                                                although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.



                                                Another approach:
                                                $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$






                                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                                $endgroup$


















                                                  0












                                                  $begingroup$

                                                  my first thought was trying substitution:
                                                  $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
                                                  $u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
                                                  $$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                  if we now let:
                                                  $$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                  then:
                                                  $$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
                                                  $v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
                                                  $$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
                                                  although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.



                                                  Another approach:
                                                  $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$






                                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                                  $endgroup$
















                                                    0












                                                    0








                                                    0





                                                    $begingroup$

                                                    my first thought was trying substitution:
                                                    $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
                                                    $u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
                                                    $$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                    if we now let:
                                                    $$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                    then:
                                                    $$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
                                                    $v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
                                                    $$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
                                                    although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.



                                                    Another approach:
                                                    $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$






                                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                                    $endgroup$



                                                    my first thought was trying substitution:
                                                    $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
                                                    $u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
                                                    $$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                    if we now let:
                                                    $$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
                                                    then:
                                                    $$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
                                                    $v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
                                                    $$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
                                                    although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.



                                                    Another approach:
                                                    $$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$







                                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                                    answered Nov 13 '18 at 2:42









                                                    Henry LeeHenry Lee

                                                    1,865219




                                                    1,865219























                                                        0












                                                        $begingroup$

                                                        The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$



                                                        Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:



                                                        Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$






                                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                                        $endgroup$


















                                                          0












                                                          $begingroup$

                                                          The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$



                                                          Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:



                                                          Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$






                                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                                          $endgroup$
















                                                            0












                                                            0








                                                            0





                                                            $begingroup$

                                                            The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$



                                                            Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:



                                                            Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$






                                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                                            $endgroup$



                                                            The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$



                                                            Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:



                                                            Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$







                                                            share|cite|improve this answer












                                                            share|cite|improve this answer



                                                            share|cite|improve this answer










                                                            answered Nov 13 '18 at 2:51









                                                            NebuNebu

                                                            585




                                                            585























                                                                0












                                                                $begingroup$

                                                                One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$






                                                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                                                $endgroup$


















                                                                  0












                                                                  $begingroup$

                                                                  One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$






                                                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                                                  $endgroup$
















                                                                    0












                                                                    0








                                                                    0





                                                                    $begingroup$

                                                                    One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$






                                                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                                                    $endgroup$



                                                                    One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$







                                                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                                                    answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:54









                                                                    Frank W.Frank W.

                                                                    3,3391321




                                                                    3,3391321























                                                                        0












                                                                        $begingroup$

                                                                        We could even compute the antiderivative since
                                                                        $$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
                                                                        $$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
                                                                        left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$
                                                                        Expanding as series for large values of $p$
                                                                        $$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
                                                                        e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$
                                                                        which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
                                                                        $$left(
                                                                        begin{array}{ccc}
                                                                        p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
                                                                        1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
                                                                        2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
                                                                        3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
                                                                        4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
                                                                        5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
                                                                        6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
                                                                        7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
                                                                        8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
                                                                        9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
                                                                        10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
                                                                        end{array}
                                                                        right)$$






                                                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                                                        $endgroup$


















                                                                          0












                                                                          $begingroup$

                                                                          We could even compute the antiderivative since
                                                                          $$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
                                                                          $$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
                                                                          left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$
                                                                          Expanding as series for large values of $p$
                                                                          $$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
                                                                          e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$
                                                                          which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
                                                                          $$left(
                                                                          begin{array}{ccc}
                                                                          p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
                                                                          1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
                                                                          2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
                                                                          3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
                                                                          4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
                                                                          5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
                                                                          6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
                                                                          7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
                                                                          8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
                                                                          9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
                                                                          10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
                                                                          end{array}
                                                                          right)$$






                                                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                                                          $endgroup$
















                                                                            0












                                                                            0








                                                                            0





                                                                            $begingroup$

                                                                            We could even compute the antiderivative since
                                                                            $$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
                                                                            $$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
                                                                            left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$
                                                                            Expanding as series for large values of $p$
                                                                            $$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
                                                                            e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$
                                                                            which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
                                                                            $$left(
                                                                            begin{array}{ccc}
                                                                            p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
                                                                            1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
                                                                            2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
                                                                            3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
                                                                            4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
                                                                            5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
                                                                            6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
                                                                            7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
                                                                            8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
                                                                            9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
                                                                            10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
                                                                            end{array}
                                                                            right)$$






                                                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                                                            $endgroup$



                                                                            We could even compute the antiderivative since
                                                                            $$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
                                                                            $$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
                                                                            left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$
                                                                            Expanding as series for large values of $p$
                                                                            $$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
                                                                            e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$
                                                                            which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
                                                                            $$left(
                                                                            begin{array}{ccc}
                                                                            p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
                                                                            1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
                                                                            2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
                                                                            3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
                                                                            4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
                                                                            5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
                                                                            6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
                                                                            7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
                                                                            8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
                                                                            9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
                                                                            10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
                                                                            end{array}
                                                                            right)$$







                                                                            share|cite|improve this answer












                                                                            share|cite|improve this answer



                                                                            share|cite|improve this answer










                                                                            answered Nov 13 '18 at 5:20









                                                                            Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici

                                                                            120k1157132




                                                                            120k1157132






























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