How to evaluate $int_{-infty}^{infty}dx frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}$
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My physics textbook makes use of the result:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!
integration definite-integrals
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add a comment |
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My physics textbook makes use of the result:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!
integration definite-integrals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My physics textbook makes use of the result:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!
integration definite-integrals
$endgroup$
My physics textbook makes use of the result:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}dx dfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2} = dfrac{pi^2}{3}$$
I'm really curious on how I can derive this but I honestly don't know what to search for. My instinct is to transform to polar coordinates but I would like some guidance. Any help appreciated!
integration definite-integrals
integration definite-integrals
edited Nov 13 '18 at 7:08
Asaf Karagila♦
302k32427758
302k32427758
asked Nov 13 '18 at 2:29
Ayumu KasuganoAyumu Kasugano
1937
1937
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8 Answers
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First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$
Edit
Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).
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Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
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– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
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I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
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– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
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@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
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– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
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Quite true. ;-)
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– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
add a comment |
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Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
So we need to find $J''(1)$
Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$
Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function
Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$
Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result
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You have
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
$$
So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
$$
whose imaginary part is
$$
2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
$$
So
$$
3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
-4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
=6pi^2
$$
i.e.,
begin{align}
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
&=-pi^2
+frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
\
&=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
end{align}
since
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
$$
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Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have
$$begin{align}
I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
&=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
&=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
&=frac{pi^2}3
end{align}$$
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my first thought was trying substitution:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
$$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
if we now let:
$$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
then:
$$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
$v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
$$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.
Another approach:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
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The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$
Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:
Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$
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One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$
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We could even compute the antiderivative since
$$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
$$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$ Expanding as series for large values of $p$
$$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$ which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
end{array}
right)$$
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8 Answers
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8 Answers
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$begingroup$
First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$
Edit
Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).
$endgroup$
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Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
$endgroup$
– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
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I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
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@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
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Quite true. ;-)
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$
Edit
Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).
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Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
$endgroup$
– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
$begingroup$
I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
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@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
$begingroup$
Quite true. ;-)
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$
Edit
Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).
$endgroup$
First off, notice the integrand is even, so we have $$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx.$$ Then we can expand $$ frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^{n}(n+1) x^n $$ and write $$ 2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=\ =2int_{0}^infty frac{x^2 e^{-x}}{(e^{-x}+1)^2}dx \ = 2 int_0^infty x^2e^{-x}sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n (n+1) e^{-nx}\=2sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^n(n+1) int_0^infty x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}dx\=4sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Then we have $$ sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} = 1-frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots = (1-frac{2}{2^2})(1+frac{1}{2^2} + frac{1}{3^2}ldots) = frac{pi^2}{12}$$
Edit
Realized this can be simplified somewhat by first doing an integration by parts $$ 2int_0^infty frac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx = 4int_0^infty frac{x}{e^x+1}dx$$ followed by a similar series expansion. Additionally, this solution somewhat 'misses the point' relative to contour integration approaches since that's one of the slicker ways to get $sum_{n}1/n^2=pi^2/6$ in the first place (and also transformation from the sums to integrals like this are the source of many zeta function identities).
edited Nov 13 '18 at 3:56
answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:11
spaceisdarkgreenspaceisdarkgreen
32.6k21753
32.6k21753
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Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
$endgroup$
– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
$begingroup$
I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
$begingroup$
@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
$begingroup$
Quite true. ;-)
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
$endgroup$
– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
$begingroup$
I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
$begingroup$
@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
$begingroup$
Quite true. ;-)
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
$endgroup$
– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
$begingroup$
Pretty! Even with my background I can understand this!
$endgroup$
– Ayumu Kasugano
Nov 14 '18 at 5:09
$begingroup$
I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
$begingroup$
I think you should have justified a bit about swapping of summation and integral sign because it is not always qcceptable right?
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 10:46
$begingroup$
@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
$begingroup$
@Digamma Sure: the sum converges absolutely and uniformly on $(0,infty)$. (But then your answer would have to justify differentiating under the integral sign.)
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Nov 14 '18 at 15:24
$begingroup$
Quite true. ;-)
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Quite true. ;-)
$endgroup$
– Digamma
Nov 14 '18 at 15:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
So we need to find $J''(1)$
Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$
Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function
Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$
Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
So we need to find $J''(1)$
Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$
Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function
Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$
Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
So we need to find $J''(1)$
Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$
Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function
Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$
Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result
$endgroup$
Substitute $e^x=t$ we get $$I=int_0^{infty} frac {ln^2t dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
Let $$J(a)=int_0^{infty} frac {t^{a-1}dt}{(1+t)^2}$$
So we need to find $J''(1)$
Notice that $$J(a)=B(a,2-a)=frac {Gamma(a)Gamma(2-a)}{Gamma(2)}$$
Where $B(x,y)$ is Standard beta function and $Gamma(x)$ is the Gamma function
Using the properties of Gamma function and Euler's reflection formula we have $$J(a)=Gamma(a) cdot(1-a)Gamma(1-a)=pi frac {1-a}{sin pi a}$$
Differentiating twice w.r.t $a$ and taking limit $ato 1$ gives the desired result
answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:34
DigammaDigamma
6,1521440
6,1521440
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
$$
So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
$$
whose imaginary part is
$$
2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
$$
So
$$
3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
-4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
=6pi^2
$$
i.e.,
begin{align}
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
&=-pi^2
+frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
\
&=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
end{align}
since
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
$$
So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
$$
whose imaginary part is
$$
2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
$$
So
$$
3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
-4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
=6pi^2
$$
i.e.,
begin{align}
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
&=-pi^2
+frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
\
&=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
end{align}
since
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
$$
So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
$$
whose imaginary part is
$$
2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
$$
So
$$
3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
-4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
=6pi^2
$$
i.e.,
begin{align}
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
&=-pi^2
+frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
\
&=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
end{align}
since
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
$$
$endgroup$
You have
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},mathrm{d}x=
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x
$$
So integrate $dfrac{z^3}{1+cosh z}$ around rectangle $pm Rpm2pi i$, we have encircled a simple pole at $pi i$ with residue $6pi^2$. The vertical sides contribution is $to 0$ as $Rtoinfty$ because of cosh in the denominator, and the horizontal contribution
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^3}{1+cosh x},mathrm{d}x+int_infty^{-infty}frac{(x+2pi i)^3}{1+underbrace{cosh(x+2pi i)}_{=cosh x}},mathrm{d}x
$$
whose imaginary part is
$$
2piint_infty^{-infty}frac{3x^2-4pi^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x.
$$
So
$$
3int_infty^{-infty}frac{x^2}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
-4pi^2int_infty^{-infty}frac{1}{1+cosh(x)},mathrm{d}x
=6pi^2
$$
i.e.,
begin{align}
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
&=-pi^2
+frac43pi^2int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(1+cosh(x))},mathrm{d}x
\
&=-pi^2+frac43pi^2=frac13pi^2
end{align}
since
$$
int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{1}{2(cosh x+1)},mathrm{d}x=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac14operatorname{sech}^2frac x2,mathrm{d}x=left[frac12tanhfrac x2right]_{-infty}^infty=1.
$$
answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:14
user10354138user10354138
7,3772925
7,3772925
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have
$$begin{align}
I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
&=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
&=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
&=frac{pi^2}3
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have
$$begin{align}
I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
&=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
&=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
&=frac{pi^2}3
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have
$$begin{align}
I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
&=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
&=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
&=frac{pi^2}3
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
Here we use Feynman's Trick to facilitate analysis. Proceeding, we have
$$begin{align}
I&=int_{-infty}^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=2int_0^infty frac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2}{ye^x+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.left(frac{d}{dy}int_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}+y},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(frac1yint_0^infty frac{x^2e^{-x}}{e^{-x}/y+1},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-2left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}}int_0^infty x^2e^{-(n+1)x},dxright)right|_{y=1}\\
&=-4left.frac{d}{dy}left(sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{y^{n+1}(n+1)^3}right)right|_{y=1}\\
&=4sum_{n=1}^infty frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}\\
&=4frac{pi^2}{12}\\
&=frac{pi^2}3
end{align}$$
answered Nov 13 '18 at 4:02
Mark ViolaMark Viola
131k1275171
131k1275171
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
my first thought was trying substitution:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
$$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
if we now let:
$$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
then:
$$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
$v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
$$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.
Another approach:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
my first thought was trying substitution:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
$$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
if we now let:
$$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
then:
$$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
$v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
$$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.
Another approach:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
my first thought was trying substitution:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
$$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
if we now let:
$$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
then:
$$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
$v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
$$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.
Another approach:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$endgroup$
my first thought was trying substitution:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
$u=e^x+1,,dx=frac{du}{e^x}$
$$I=int_1^inftyfrac{x^2}{u^2}du=int_1^inftyfrac{ln^2(u-1)}{u^2}du$$
if we now let:
$$I(a)=int_1^inftyfrac{ln(au-1)}{u^2}du$$
then:
$$I''(a)=int_1^inftyln(au-1)du$$
$v=au-1,,du=frac{dv}{a}$
$$I''(a)=frac1aint_a^inftyln(v)dv$$
although this leaves us with a divergent integral, which does not help.
Another approach:
$$I=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2[(e^x+1)-1]}{(e^x+1)^2}dx=int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{e^x+1}dx-int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{x^2}{(e^x+1)^2}dx$$
answered Nov 13 '18 at 2:42
Henry LeeHenry Lee
1,865219
1,865219
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$
Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:
Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$
Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:
Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$
Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:
Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$
$endgroup$
The integral you are interested in can be rewritten in the form: $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{x^{2}}{2 cosh(x)+2} dx$$
Several techniques for solving integrals similar to this can be found at:
Improper Integral of $x^2/cosh(x)$
answered Nov 13 '18 at 2:51
NebuNebu
585
585
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$
$endgroup$
One of the standard solutions for evaluating difficult integrals is to transform the integrand into an infinite sequence and then integrating termwise. Indeed, if we start off with the geometric sum$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}x^n=frac 1{1-x}$$multiply both sides by $x$ and differentiating with respect to $x$, it's easy to see that$$sumlimits_{ngeq0}(n+1)x^n=frac 1{(1-x)^2}$$Replace $x$ with $-e^{-x}$ in the problem and calling the integral $mathfrak{I}$, the problem transforms into$$begin{align*}mathfrak{I} & =2sumlimits_{ngeq0}(-1)^n(n+1)intlimits_{0}^{infty}mathrm dx,x^2 e^{-(n+1)x}end{align*}$$The remaining integral can be evaluated using integration by parts on $u=x^2$ to get$$mathfrak I=4sumlimits_{ngeq0}frac {(-1)^{n}}{(n+1)^2}=4sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2}$$The inner sum is equal to $pi^2/12$ and is due to the identity$$eta(s)=(1-2^{1-s})zeta(s)$$Where$$eta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac {(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$$$zeta(s)=sumlimits_{ngeq1}frac 1{n^s}$$Since $zeta(2)=pi^2/6$, the result follows immediately$$intlimits_{-infty}^{infty}mathrm dx,frac {x^2e^{x}}{(1+e^x)^2}color{blue}{=frac {pi^2}{3}}$$
answered Nov 13 '18 at 3:54
Frank W.Frank W.
3,3391321
3,3391321
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We could even compute the antiderivative since
$$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
$$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$ Expanding as series for large values of $p$
$$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$ which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
end{array}
right)$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We could even compute the antiderivative since
$$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
$$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$ Expanding as series for large values of $p$
$$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$ which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
end{array}
right)$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We could even compute the antiderivative since
$$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
$$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$ Expanding as series for large values of $p$
$$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$ which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
end{array}
right)$$
$endgroup$
We could even compute the antiderivative since
$$I=intfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=x left(frac{e^x x}{e^x+1}-2 log left(e^x+1right)right)-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^xright)$$ making
$$J=int_0^pfrac{x^2 e^x}{(e^x+1)^2},dx=frac{e^p p^2}{e^p+1}-2 text{Li}_2left(-e^pright)-2 p log
left(e^p+1right)-frac{pi ^2}{6}$$ Expanding as series for large values of $p$
$$J=left(2-frac{1}{e^p+1}right) p^2+frac{1}{2} e^{-2 p} left(1-4
e^pright)+frac{pi ^2}{6}-2 p log left(e^p+1right)+cdots$$ which shows the limit and which is a quite good approximation even for small values of $p$
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
p & text{approximation} & text{exact} \
1 & 0.08137802971721 & 0.07217327763488 \
2 & 0.39889758755901 & 0.39838536515902 \
3 & 0.82824233816028 & 0.82821565813003 \
4 & 1.17549173764877 & 1.17549038617232 \
5 & 1.39700611481663 & 1.39700604709488 \
6 & 1.52125697930945 & 1.52125697592972 \
7 & 1.58570867980301 & 1.58570867963459 \
8 & 1.61743428754382 & 1.61743428753543 \
9 & 1.63247105478514 & 1.63247105478472 \
10 & 1.63939550316470 & 1.63939550316468
end{array}
right)$$
answered Nov 13 '18 at 5:20
Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici
120k1157132
120k1157132
add a comment |
add a comment |
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