Noun form of “aver”?












16















It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






etymology language-evolution variants







share|improve this question





























    16















    It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



    But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



    I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






    etymology language-evolution variants







    share|improve this question



























      16












      16








      16


      2






      It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



      But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



      I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






      etymology language-evolution variants







      share|improve this question
















      It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



      But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



      I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






      etymology language-evolution variants




      etymology language-evolution variants






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Nov 16 '18 at 16:40







      feetwet

















      asked Nov 15 '18 at 19:54









      feetwetfeetwet

      798830




      798830






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          25














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer


























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17





















          19














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer





















          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20











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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          active

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          25














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer


























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17


















          25














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer


























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17
















          25












          25








          25







          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer















          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.








          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 15 '18 at 20:02

























          answered Nov 15 '18 at 19:59









          user240918user240918

          26.8k1075155




          26.8k1075155













          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17





















          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17



















          Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

          – feetwet
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:01





          Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

          – feetwet
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:01




          4




          4





          @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

          – user240918
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:08





          @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

          – user240918
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:08




          2




          2





          @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

          – PLL
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:17







          @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

          – PLL
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:17















          19














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer





















          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20
















          19














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer





















          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20














          19












          19








          19







          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer















          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 16 '18 at 14:50

























          answered Nov 16 '18 at 0:18









          TonyKTonyK

          1,983310




          1,983310








          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20














          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20








          2




          2





          averral is non-standard.

          – Kris
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:53





          averral is non-standard.

          – Kris
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:53













          @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

          – TonyK
          Nov 16 '18 at 11:23





          @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

          – TonyK
          Nov 16 '18 at 11:23













          Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

          – user240918
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:34







          Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

          – user240918
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:34






          2




          2





          @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

          – T.J. Crowder
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:38





          @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

          – T.J. Crowder
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:38




          1




          1





          @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

          – 1006a
          Nov 16 '18 at 17:20





          @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

          – 1006a
          Nov 16 '18 at 17:20


















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          Danny Elfman

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          Danny Elfman From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia Jump to navigation Jump to search Danny Elfman Elfman at the 2010 San Diego Comic-Con Born Daniel Robert Elfman ( 1953-05-29 ) May 29, 1953 (age 65) Los Angeles, California, U.S. Spouse(s) Bridget Fonda ( m.  2003) Children 1 Musical career Genres Rock [1] ska [2] new wave film music video game music Occupation(s) Composer, singer, songwriter, record producer Instruments Trombone guitar percussion vocals keyboards [3] Years active 1972–present Associated acts Oingo Boingo James Newton Howard Daniel Robert Elfman (born May 29, 1953) is an American composer, singer, songwriter, and record producer. Elfman first became known for being the lead singer and songwriter for the band Oingo Boingo from 1974 to 1995. He is well known for scoring films and television shows, particularly his frequent collabora...
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          Lugert, Oklahoma

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          Unincorporated community in Oklahoma, United States Lugert, Oklahoma Unincorporated community Foundations from the town of Lugert at the bottom of Lake Altus-Lugert Lugert, Oklahoma Location within the state of Oklahoma Coordinates: 34°53′45″N 99°16′31″W  /  34.89583°N 99.27528°W  / 34.89583; -99.27528 Coordinates: 34°53′45″N 99°16′31″W  /  34.89583°N 99.27528°W  / 34.89583; -99.27528 Country United States State Oklahoma County Kiowa Time zone UTC-6 (Central (CST))  • Summer (DST) UTC-5 (CDT) GNIS feature ID 1100597 Lugert is an unincorporated community in Kiowa County, Oklahoma. [1] The town of Lugert was founded in 1901 on 80 acres (320,000 m 2 ). In the town, there was a general store that housed the Post office and sold dry goods, school supplies, groceries, harnesses, axes and much more. It was named for Frank Lugert, who had moved to the area in 1898. Lugert owned land where the town was sited and also owned the general st...
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